D027 Cardiovascular & Endocrine Review Q&A for Midterm Study
Student Name Western Governors University D027 Advanced Pathopharmacological Foundations Prof. Name Date D027 Cardiovascular & Endocrine Review Q&A for Midterm Study The D027 Cardiovascular & Endocrine Review covers high-yield concepts in pharmacology, pathophysiology, medication safety, and clinical decision-making. For the midterm, students should understand not only what a medication does but also its major adverse effects, contraindications, interactions, monitoring requirements, and patient-teaching points. The review also includes diabetes, thyroid disorders, respiratory and neurologic conditions, musculoskeletal and gastrointestinal disorders, pain management, mental health, stress, genetics, health disparities, pediatrics, aging, and immunization. Cardiovascular Review Questions and Answers What is the most common adverse effect of ACE inhibitors? Answer: A dry, persistent cough. ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril may cause a persistent, nonproductive cough. The reaction is associated with increased bradykinin and other substances in the respiratory tract. If the cough becomes difficult to tolerate, the prescriber may consider an alternative such as an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), depending on the patient’s clinical situation. What should patients taking spironolactone know about potassium? Answer: Potassium supplements and potassium-containing salt substitutes should generally be avoided unless specifically recommended. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Because it reduces potassium excretion, it can cause hyperkalemia, particularly in patients with impaired kidney function or those taking other medications that increase potassium. Patients should discuss supplements and salt substitutes with their healthcare professional before using them. What should a pregnant patient taking an ACE inhibitor do? Answer: Contact the healthcare provider promptly. ACE inhibitors can cause serious fetal complications and are generally avoided during pregnancy. Potential complications include fetal kidney dysfunction, oligohydramnios, and neonatal problems. A patient who becomes pregnant while taking an ACE inhibitor should contact the prescribing clinician promptly so the medication regimen can be reassessed. Why may metoprolol be combined with nifedipine? Answer: Metoprolol can help control reflex tachycardia associated with nifedipine. Nifedipine is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker that relaxes vascular smooth muscle and may cause reflex increases in heart rate. Metoprolol, a beta blocker, slows the heart rate and can reduce this response in appropriately selected patients. How can patients reduce orthostatic hypotension caused by vasodilators? Answer: Change positions slowly and avoid standing abruptly. Vasodilating medications can lower blood pressure and cause dizziness when a person changes position. Patients should move gradually from lying to sitting and from sitting to standing. Adequate hydration, when appropriate, and fall-prevention measures may also be important. Which lifestyle changes can help manage hypertension? Answer: Reduce sodium intake, maintain a healthy weight, exercise regularly, moderate alcohol consumption, and avoid tobacco. Lifestyle modification is an important part of blood pressure management. A heart-healthy eating pattern such as the DASH diet, regular physical activity, weight management, and tobacco avoidance can support cardiovascular health. Family history and other risk factors should also be considered. Which medications can improve outcomes after myocardial infarction? Answer: ACE inhibitors and beta blockers are commonly used when clinically appropriate. Evidence-based medications after myocardial infarction can reduce cardiovascular complications and mortality in appropriate patients. Treatment depends on factors such as left ventricular function, blood pressure, kidney function, comorbidities, and medication tolerance. Which two antiarrhythmic medication groups can produce similar cardiac effects? Answer: Beta blockers and nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers. Beta blockers and nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers such as verapamil and diltiazem can decrease heart rate and slow atrioventricular-node conduction. They can also reduce myocardial contractility, although their specific indications and clinical effects differ. What symptom is concerning when a patient taking simvastatin is prescribed azithromycin? Answer: New muscle pain, tenderness, or weakness. Muscle symptoms in a patient taking a statin require attention because they can indicate statin-associated muscle injury. Severe muscle injury can lead to rhabdomyolysis and kidney damage. Potential medication interactions should be reviewed whenever a new drug is added. How is significant warfarin-associated bleeding treated? Answer: Vitamin K and, when indicated, rapid factor replacement therapy. Management depends on the INR, severity and location of bleeding, and overall clinical condition. Serious or life-threatening bleeding may require intravenous vitamin K together with a rapid reversal product such as four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC). Endocrine Review Questions and Answers What short-term complications should be monitored in a newly diagnosed patient with diabetes? Answer: Hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, and diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Acute glucose abnormalities can develop rapidly and may require urgent treatment. Long-term complications, including neuropathy, kidney disease, and vascular disease, generally develop over a longer period and require ongoing preventive care. Which insulin can be used for rapid correction of premeal hyperglycemia? Answer: Rapid-acting insulin such as lispro, aspart, or glulisine. Rapid-acting insulin analogs have a relatively quick onset and short duration. They are commonly administered around meals according to an individualized insulin plan and glucose-management strategy. What dietary strategy is important for many patients with type 1 diabetes? Answer: Carbohydrate counting. Carbohydrate counting helps patients coordinate food intake with insulin doses. Nutrition planning should be individualized based on insulin regimen, activity, glucose targets, nutritional needs, and other health conditions. Which laboratory test estimates average blood glucose over approximately two to three months? Answer: Hemoglobin A1C (HbA1c). HbA1c reflects average glucose exposure over roughly the previous two to three months. Conditions that change red blood cell lifespan can affect its accuracy, so results should be interpreted in the appropriate clinical context. How is insulin glargine generally administered? Answer: It is generally administered once daily according to the prescribed regimen. Insulin glargine is a long-acting basal insulin designed to provide relatively consistent glucose-lowering activity. It is not intended to replace rapid-acting mealtime insulin when that component is prescribed. What medication may be included in the treatment of thyroid storm? Answer: Propylthiouracil (PTU) may be used as part of a comprehensive treatment regimen. Thyroid storm is a life-threatening manifestation of severe thyrotoxicosis. Management may include a thionamide such as PTU, beta blockade when appropriate, corticosteroids, supportive treatment, and management of the precipitating condition. Which findings are commonly associated with hypothyroidism? Answer: Bradycardia, cold intolerance, fatigue, and reduced body temperature can occur. Hypothyroidism slows metabolic processes. Other possible findings include dry skin,